Is John 1:18 translated poorly in the English Standard Bible? - Quora
Por um escritor misterioso
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Answer (1 of 18): In regards to John 1.18, the root of the issue between the KJV and ESV is not in translation, but rather in the underlying Greek texts used to translate each. Simply put, the KJV is translated from different source material than the ESV. So rather than translation, this become
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John 1:18 No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him.

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